Salvation Case
Essay by people • December 18, 2011 • Essay • 2,503 Words (11 Pages) • 1,562 Views
Hebrews 10:26-31, [26] "For if we go on sinning willfully after receiving the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins, [27] but a certain terrifying expectation of judgment, and the fury of a fire which will consume the adversaries. [28] Anyone who has set aside the Law of Moses dies without mercy on the testimony of two or three witnesses. [29] How much more severer punishment do you think he will deserve who has trampled under foot the Son of God, and has regarded as unclean the blood of the covenant by which he was sanctified, and has insulted the Spirit of grace? [30] For we know Him who said, 'Vengeance is mine, I will repay.' And again, 'The Lord will judge His people.' [31] It is a fearful thing to fall into the hands of the living God."
Comments:
Here we have yet another clear scriptural text that teaches that it is possible for a believer to turn away from God and thereby forfeit his salvation. The preceding context deals with the complete sufficiency of the ONE sacrifice Christ made on behalf of sinners (verses 1-18), and how, if we rely on His sacrifice for us, we can possess assurance (verse 19-23). Having described the precious sacrifice of Christ and the awesome work He did on our behalf, the Author of Hebrews then gives a terrible warning against apostasy and the abuse of the salvation that precious sacrifice wrought.
The author starts with, "For if we go on sinning willfully..." Please take particular notice of the pronoun "we". If the author was speaking to non-believers in the Hebrew congregation, wouldn't he have said, "if some" or, "if those" who go on sinning willfully? By using the pronoun "we", the author includes those who he is writing to, and is there any doubt that he is writing to believers? If their is doubt, just read the rest of the verse which says, "For if we go on sinning willfully after receiving the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins..." The phrase, "after receiving the knowledge of the truth" seems quite clear if one is giving the text an honest reading. Since Calvinistic theologians must interpret the scripture as not allowing this reading, however, they must argue that "the knowledge of the truth" means something other than salvation.
First, and most obviously, Jesus says, "I am the truth" (John 14:6). Throughout the gospels and the epistles, anytime the phrase "the truth" is used in a context similar to the one we have before us, it always means Jesus/his gospel of salvation. Another place in scripture where the same exact Greek construction of the phrase "knowledge of the truth" is used, is Titus 1:1, which says, "Paul, a bond-servant of Jesus Christ, for the faith of those chosen of God and the knowledge of the truth which is according to godliness, in the hope of eternal life, which God, who cannot lie, promised long ages ago..." Does "the knowledge of the truth" here mean something other than applying to believers - applying to those with the faith, chosen of God, having the hope of eternal life? In 2 Thess. 2:13, the last part of the verse "in the truth" (NAS) is the same exact Greek construction as "of the truth" in Hebrews 10:26 (KJ). 2 Thess. 2:13 says, "But we should always give thanks to God for you, brethren beloved by the Lord, because God has chosen you from the beginning for salvation through sanctification by the Spirit and faith in the truth". Is there any doubt that those referred to in this passage as having "faith in the truth" are not believers - brethren beloved by the Lord, chosen of God from the beginning for salvation, sanctified by the Spirit and having faith in the truth? The latter part of 2 Tim. 2: 25 says, "...if perhaps God may grant them [those in opposition to the Gospel of Jesus Christ] repentance leading to the knowledge of the truth, and they may come to their senses and escape form the snare of the devil, having been held captive by him do his will." Here again we have the same construction, "the knowledge of the truth". Notice particularly here that "repentance" PRECEDES "the knowledge of the truth"! This is most significant and should leave no doubt as to the fact that those who "have received the knowledge of the truth" are indeed believers.
In addition, the form of the word "knowledge" used here in Heb. 10:26 is the strongest form of the Greek word denoting experiential knowledge of someone/thing. Vines says of epignosis, the transliterated Greek word for "knowledge" here, that it "denotes exact or full knowledge, discernment, recognition and...express[es] a fuller or a full 'knowledge', a greater participation by the 'knower' in the object 'known', thus more powerfully influencing him". The best verse to close this study of the phrase "knowledge of the truth" is John 8:31-32. Here Jesus says, "If you abide in My word, then you are truly disciples of Mine; and you shall know the truth, and the truth shall make you free". Jesus is the Truth, and true knowledge of Him (the same word "knowledge" in Heb. 10:26 is translated "true knowledge" in the latter part of Col. 2:2) shall make you free. To that "knowledge" as translated in Heb. 10:26 means intellectual ascent only, is without Scriptural precedent and is ruled out by the context and sound exegesis, as demonstrated in the previous paragraphs.
In continuing with verse 26 and on into verse 27, it again says, "For if we go on sinning willfully after receiving the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins, [27] but a certain terrifying expectation of judgment, and the fury of a fire which will consume the adversaries". If the phrase, "For if we go on sinning willfully after receiving the knowledge of the truth" refers to someone other than believers, then the following phrase, "there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins" make no sense. Jesus' ransom for unbeliever's bondage remains available to them at all times (John 3:16; 2 Pet. 3:9) if they would just choose to repent and believe. God continues to love the world and the forgiveness of sins made possible by His Son's example remains available to all who thirst and would come and take the water of life without cost (Rev. 22:17). Therefore, the phrase "there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins" is clearly referring to those who have turned their backs on the Lord (the One they have personally known) and have thereby blasphemed His Holy Spirit (Matt. 12:32). If there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins, then those
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